I am not here to argue, but I want to point out that this is incorrect. Thrombolytic medication in general is something that should NOT be used for TIAs. By definition, a TIA is stroke like symptoms that resolve in 24 hours, but generally do not cause significant neuro deficits [[As it is a transient decrease in blood flow of small vessels as opposed to a large vessel). In addition, when neuro deficits are not very significant [[Based on the NIH stroke scale), thrombolytic medication is not indicated:
https://www.mdcalc.com/nih-stroke-scale-score-nihss
So, either someone comes in to the emergency department with significant neuro deficits in the appropriate window for systemic tpa [[3-4.5 hours). Or, if someone is presenting past this window they are candidates for catheter directed tpa or thrombectomy.
They didn't give us all the information, I am saying possible thrombectomy [[I misspoke in my initial post) because interventional radiology will mechanically remove these clots:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC5091327/
So since we were not given all the information, it is very possible that he received both catheter directed tpa +/- thrombectomy.
And the way they described his hospitalization in the first article has everything to do with journalism. These are not benign procedures, and his hospitalization was framed in a way that would suggest otherwise.
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